Class 11 || Mathematics || Relations and Functions : Practice Question - A

 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1 : If A = {-1, 2, 3 } and B = {1, 3}, then determine
(i) AxB (ii) BxC (c) BxB (iv) AxA

Question 2 : If P = {x : x < 3, x e N}, Q= {x : x≤2,x ∈ W}. Find (P∪ Q) x (P∩ Q), where W is the set of whole numbers.

Question 3 : lfA={x:x∈ W,x < 2}, 5 = {x : x∈N, 1 <.x < 5}, C= {3, 5}. Find
(i) Ax(B∩Q) (ii) Ax(B∪C)

Question 4 : In each of the following cases, find a and b. (2a + b, a – b) = (8, 3) (ii) {a/4, a – 2b) = (0, 6 + b)

Question 5 : Given A = {1,2,3,4, 5}, S= {(x,y) :x∈ A,y∈ A}.Find the ordered pairs which satisfy the conditions given below, (i) x+y = 5 (ii) x+y<5 (iii) x+y>8

Question 6 : Given R = {(x,y) : x,y ∈ W, x2 + y2 = 25}. Find the domain and range of R

Question 7 : If R1 = {(x, y)| y = 2x + 7, where x∈ R and -5 ≤ x ≤ 5} is a relation. Then find the domain and range of R1.

Question 8 : If R2 = {(x, y) | x and y are integers and x2 +y2 = 64} is a relation. Then find R2

Question 9 : If R3 = {(x, |x|) | x is a real number} is a relation. Then find domain and range.

Question 10 : Is the given relation a function? Give reasons for your answer.
(i) h={(4,6), (3,9), (-11,6), (3,11)}
(ii) f = {(x, x) | x is a real number}
(iii) g = {(n, 1 In)| nis a positive integer}
(iv) s= {(n, n2) | n is a positive integer}
(v) t= {(x, 3) | x is a real number}

Question 11 : If f and g are real functions defined byf( x) = x2 + 7 and g(x) = 3x + 5, find each of the following.

Question 12 : Let f and g be real functions defined by f(x) = 2x+ 1 and g(x) = 4x – 7.
(i) For what real numbers x,f(x)= g(x)?
(ii) For what real numbers x,f (x) < g(x)?

Question 13 : If f and g are two real valued ftmctions defined as f(x) = 2x + 1, g(x) = x2 + 1, then find.

Question 14 : Express the following functions as set of ordered pairs and determine their range.
f:X->R,f{x) =  x3 + 1, where X= {-1,0, 3, 9, 7}

Question 15 : Find the values of x for which the functions f(x) = 3x2 -1 and g(x) = 3+ x are equal.

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Class09 : Population : NCERT Solutions

 

Question 1: Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in

1. The area of departure
2. Both the area of departure and arrival
3. The area of arrival
4. None of the above
   
   Answer: (b) Both the area of departure and arrival

Question 2: A large proportion of children in a population is a result of

1. High birth rates
2. High death rates
3. High life expectancies
4. More married couples
   
   Answer: (a) High birth rates

Question 3: The magnitude of population growth refers to

1. The total population of an area
2. The number of persons added each year
3. The rate at which the population increases
4. The number of females per thousand males
   
   Answer: (b) The number of persons added each year

Question 4: According to the Census 2001, a “literate” person is one who

1. Can read and write his/her name
2. Can read and write any language
3. Is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
4. Knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)
   
   Answer: (a) Can read and write his/her name

Question 5: Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?

Answer: The family planning programme helped in increasing the awareness about the benefits of smaller family size. This helped in reducing the rate of population growth in India since 1981.

Question 6: Discuss the major components of population growth.

Answer: Birth rate, death rate and migration are the major components of population growth. A higher birth rate; coupled with a lower death rate leads to population growth. International migration can lead to population growth of more number of people are coming from other countries than the number of people going outside the country.

Question 7: Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.

Answer: Age Structure: Relative percentage of various age groups in the population is called age structure of the population. Age group is generally divided into children (upto 14 years), working age (15 – 59 years) and aged (60 years and above).

Death Rate: The number of deaths per 1000 persons is called death rate.

Birth Rate: The number of live births per 1000 persons is called birth rate.

Question 8: How is migration a determinant factor of population change?

Answer: Migration within the country is called internal migration, while that between two countries is called international migration. Internal migration has no change on population size but it changes the population composition of a particular area. International migration can lead to a growth or degrowth in population; depending on the degree of immigration and emigration.

Question 9: Distinguish between population growth and population change.

Answer: Population growth is about increase or decrease in the population. Population change is about changes in population composition; like age structure, sex ratio, literacy rate, occupational structure, etc.

Question 10: What is the relation between occupational structure and development?

Answer: Occupational structure greatly affects the development of a country. A large portion of the Indian population is still dependent on the primary sector for employment; which is one of the reasons for lack of development in India. Examples of developed nations suggest that when a greater portion of population engages in secondary and tertiary activities, it leads to proper development.

Question 11: What are the advantages of having a healthy population?

Answer: A healthy population helps in building a productive workforce for the country. Even the non-productive age group needs to be healthy to reduce the burden of healthcare. Healthy children would grow into healthy adults and would be able to contribute better in the economy. Healthy elders would mean less drain on the resources.

Question 12: What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000?

Answer: NPP 200 has put special emphasis on the adolescent population. Focus is given to special nutritional needs of the adolescents. Awareness programmes are conducted to increase awareness about STDs, unwanted pregnancies, child marriage, risks of unprotected sex, etc.

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Class09 : Climate : NCERT Solutions

 Question 1: Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world ?

1. Silchar
2. Cherrapunji
3. Mawsynram
4. Guwahati
   
   Answer: (c) Mawsynram

Question 2: The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:

1. Kal Baisakhi
2. Trade Wind
3. Loo
4. None of the above
   
   Answer: (c) Loo

Question 3: Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India.

1. Cyclonic depression
2. Western disturbances
3. Retreating monsoon
4. Southwest monsoon
   
   Answer: (b) Western disturbances

Question 4: Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:

1. Early May
2. Early June
3. Early July
4. Early August
   
   Answer:(b) Early June

Question 5: Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?

1. Warm days and warm nights
2. Warm days and cold nights
3. Cool days and cold nights
4. Cold days and warm nights
   
   Answer: (c) Cool days and cold nights

Question 6: What are the controls affecting the climate of India ?

Answer: Latitude, Altitude and Pressure and Winds are the main factors which affect the climate of India.

Question 7: Why does India have a monsoon type of climate ?

Answer: India comes in the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). This fact; in association with various other factors, like the El Nino, Jet Stream and Coriolois Force are the reasons for monsoon type of climate in India.

Question 8: Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why ?

Answer: Northwestern part of India experiences the highest diurnal range of temperature. This happens because of the presence of the Thar Desert and also because this region does not have the moderating influence of the ocean.

Question 9: Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast ?

Answer: Monsoon winds

Question 10: What are Jet streams and how do they affect the climate of India ?

Answer: Fast flowing and narrow air currents are called jet streams. The streams flow at high altitudes (about 12,000 feet) in the troposphere. The westerly jet streams are responsible for western cyclonic disturbances in the north and north-western parts of India. The subtropical westerly jet stream moves north of the Himalayas with the apparent movement of the sun. The tropical jet stream (an easterly jet stream) blows over the Indian Peninsula; approximately over 14° north during the summer months.

Question 11: Define monsoons. What do you understand by “break” in monsoon ?

Answer: The seasonal reversal in wind direction during a year is called monsoon. Monsoon tends to have ‘breaks’ in rainfall; which means that there are wet and dry spells in between. The monsoon rains take place only for a few days at a time and then come the rainless intervals.

Question 12: Why is the monsoon considered a unifying bond ?

Answer: Although there are wide variations in weather patterns across India, the monsoon brings some unifying influences on India. The Indian landscape, its flora and fauna, etc. are highly influenced by the monsoon. The entire agricultural calendar in India is governed by the monsoon. Most of the festivals in India are related to agricultural cycle. These festivals may be known by different names in different parts of the country, but their celebration is decided by the monsoon. It is also said that the river valleys which carry the rainwater also unite as a single river valley unit. Due to these reasons, monsoon is often a great unifying factor in India.

Question 13: Why does the rainfall decrease from the east to the west in Northern India ?

Answer: The Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon winds moves towards northeast and return westwards covering the northern plains. While they move towards west, their moisture contains tends to reduce with subsequent rains. Hence the rainfall decreases from east to west in northern India.

Question 14: Give reasons as to why

1. Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent?
   
   Answer: Seasonal reversal of wind direction over the Indian subcontinent takes place due to pressure differential. El Nino has major role to play in the seasonal reversal of wind direction over the Indian subcontinent.
   
   
2. The bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.
   
   Answer: The monsoon begins from the first week of June and advances quite rapidly to cover almost the whole country by mid-July. Hence, the bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over the months of a few months; mainly June to August.
   
   
3. The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
   
   Answer: The Tami Nadu coast receives winter rainfall because of movement of low-pressure conditions to the Bay of Bengal.
   
   
4. The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
   
   Answer: The Bay of Bengal is the centre of various pressure changes and hence there is always a chance of development of cyclone. Due to this, the delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
   
   
5. Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought-prone.
   
   Answer: These parts fall in the rain shadow area of the Aravalli. Hence, they are drought prone.

Question 15: Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.

Answer: Indian Peninsular shows wide variations in climatic conditions across various regions. For example; during winter season, the temperature goes into negative in the Himalayan region. In the northwestern India, temperatures can range between zero degree to 15°C during winter. During the same season, the temperature in Chennai remains a comfortable 25°C. The same variation can be seen in summer as well, while the temperature in Rajasthan can hover around 47°C, it is a comfortable 30°C in Chennai.

Question 16: Discuss the mechanism of monsoons.

Answer: The low-pressure condition over the northern plains intensifies by the beginning of June. It attracts the trade winds from the southern hemisphere. These south-east trade winds cross the equator and blow in a south-westerly direction to enter the Indian peninsula as the south-west monsoon. These winds bring abundant moisture to the subcontinent.

Question 17: Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.

Answer: The temperature ranges between 10°-15°C in the northern plains. The weather is usually marked by clear sky, low temperatures and low humidity and feeble variable winds. The inflow of the cyclonic disturbances from the west and the northwest is a characteristic feature of the cold weather over the northern plains. These low-pressure systems originate over the Mediterranean Sea and Western Asia and move into India. They cause winter rains over the plains and snowfall in the mountains.

Question 18: Give the characteristics and effects of the monsoon rainfall in India.

Answer: Monsoon tends to have ‘breaks’ in rainfall; which means that there are wet and dry spells in between. The monsoon is famous for its uncertainties. It may cause heavy floods in one part of the country, and may be responsible for droughts in other part. Because of its uncertain behaviour, it sometimes disturbs the farming schedule in India. This affects millions of farmers all over the country.

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Class09 : Natural Vegetation and Wildlife : NCERT Solutions

Question 1 To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to?

1. Tundra
2. Himalayan
3. Tidal
4. Tropical Evergreen
   
   Answer: (d) Tropical evergreen

Question 2 Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than

1. 100 cm
2. 70 cm
3. 50 cm
4. Less than 50 cm
   
   Answer: (a) 100 cm

Question 3 In which of the following state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located ?

1. Punjab
2. Delhi
3. Orissa
4. est Bengal
   
   Answer: (d) West Bengal

Question 4 Which one of the following bio-reserves of India is not included in the world network of bioreserve ?

1. Manas
2. Gulf of Mannar
3. Nilgiri
4. Nanda Devi
   
   Answer: (a) Manas

Question 5: Define an ecosystem.

Answer: All the plants and animals in an area are interdependent on each other. The plants and animals; alongwith their physical environment make the ecosystem.

Question 6: What factors are responsible for the distribution of plants and animals in India?

Answer: Relief (Land and soil) and Climate (Temperature, humidity, photoperiod and precipitation) are the factors which are responsible for the distribution of plants and animals in India.

Question 7: What is a bio-reserve? Give two examples.

Answer: A biosphere reserve is an area proposed by its residents, ratified by a national committee, and designated by UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) program, which demonstrates innovative approaches to living and working in harmony with nature. (ref: Wikipedia)

Question 8: Name two animals having habitat in tropical and montane type of vegetation.

Answer: Tropical (Elephant, deer) and Montane (yak, snow leopard)

Question 9: Distinguish between

1. Flora and fauna
   
   Answer: Plant species comprise the flora, while animal species comprise the fauna.
   
   
2. Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous forests
   
   Answer: Trees of evergreen forests do not shed their leaves at a fixed time in a year, while trees of deciduous forest shed their leaves at a fixed time in a year.

Question 10: Name different types of Vegetation found in India and describe the vegetation of high altitudes.

Answer: There are five major types of vegetation in India: Tropical Rainforests, Tropical Deciduous Forests, Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs, Montane Forests and Mangrove Forests.

Montane Forest: The forests in the mountainous areas are called montane forest. These forests are mainly found along the southern slopes of the Himalayas and at high altitudes in southern and north-eastern India. Kashmir stag, spotted deer, wild sheep, jack rabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak, snow leopard, squirrels, Shaggy horn wild ibex, bear, rare red panda, sheep and goats are the common animals in these forests.

Question 11: Quite a few species of plants and animals are endangered in India. Why ?

Answer: Large scale deforestation has reduced the natural habitat of many plants and animals. Due to this, many species of plants and animals are endangered in India.

Question 12: Why has India a rich heritage of flora and fauna?

Answer: India has a variety of climatic conditions; like tropical, subtropical, desert and mountainous. Due to this, there are enough habitats for a large variety of flora and fauna. Due to this, India has a rich heritage of flora and fauna.

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Class 09 : Peasants and Farmers : NCERT Solution

Question 1: Explain briefly what the open field system meant to rural people in eighteenth- century England. Look at the system from the point of view of:

1. A rich farmer
   
   Answer: The open field system was not beneficial for the rich farmer because he could not have exclusive control of the commons. He could not expand his area under cultivation beyond the strips which were allocated at the beginning of a year.
   
   
2. A labourer
   
   Answer: This system was beneficial for a labourer because it provided additional sources of livelihood. The labourer could hunt rabbits and catch fish for getting some nutritious food. The commons provided some source of livelihood during off seasons when farm work was not available.
   
   
3. A peasant woman
   
   Answer: For a peasant woman, the commons provided ample space for collecting firewood, fruits and berries.

Question 2: Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclosures in England.

Answer: The increased price of wool tempted the rich farmers to usurp the commons. They wanted to improve their sheep breeds to earn more profits. They began making enclosures on the commons land.

After the late eighteenth century, the population of England increased significantly. This was also the time of industrialization. Many people migrated to towns in search of new opportunities. All of this increased the demand for food-grains. These developments hastened the enclosure movement in England.

Question 3: Why were threshing machines opposed by the poor in England?

Answer: Threshing machines reduced the need for manual labour. After the end of Napoleonic Wars, many soldiers who came back to villages could not find jobs because of threshing machines. For them, the threshing machine was a symbol of joblessness and hence they opposed the threshing machines.

Question 4: Who was Captain Swing? What did the name symbolise or represent ?

Answer: Captain Swing was a mythical person. During the riots to destroy threshing machines and farmhouses, the letters left by the rioters carried the signature of Captain Swing. The name symbolized the protest of poor against the rich farmers and against the new technology.

Question 5: What was the impact of the westward expansion of settlers in the USA ?

Answer: After the late eighteenth century, white Americans began to move westward. The displaced local tribes and changed the entire landscape into agricultural belts. Finally, they established control up to the west coast. By the early twentieth century, the landscape of the USA had transformed radically. The USA began to dominate the world market in agricultural produce.

Question 6: What were the advantages and disadvantages of the use of mechanical harvesting machines in the USA ?

Answer: Combined harvester saved time and manual labour for the farmers. It helped in managing huge farms with minimum number of workers. It improved productivity and profitability of big farmers.

Many poor farmers fell in debt trap because they could not utilize the combined harvester to its full potential. Many of them deserted their farmland and turned into labourers.

Question 7: What lessons can we draw from the conversion of the countryside in the USA from a bread basket to a dust bowl ?

Answer: The conversion of USA countryside from a bread basket to a dust bowl teaches the importance of conservation of the ecosystem. Human development cannot take place at the cost of natural environment.

Question 8: Write a paragraph on why the British insisted on farmers growing opium in India.

Answer: The British were heavily dependent on China for tea imports. Since the Chinese authority did not allow foreign goods, so the British had to pay for tea in silver and bullions. This had the potential danger of siphoning off the treasure of Britain. Opium could be easily smuggled into China because of a large number of opium addicts. Profit from opium trade could be utilised to finance the tea imports. Hence, the British insisted on farmers to grow opium in India.

Question 9: Why were Indian farmers reluctant to grow opium?

Answer: Opium production required the use of the best lands which meant diversion of land from cereal and pulses production. Opium cultivation was time consuming which left little time to care for other crops. Most of the farmers did not own land and they had to lease a land for growing opium. The British offered very low price of opium to the peasants. These are the various reasons for Indian farmers’ reluctance to grow opium.

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Class 09 : Nazism and Rise of Hitler : NCERT Solution

 

Question 1: Describe the problems faced by the Weimar Republic.

Answer: The Weimar Republic was politically fragile. Its constitution had some inherent defects and hence the Weimar Republic was prone to be unstable and vulnerable to dictatorship. The provision of proportional representation meant that majority by a single party was impossible and coalition government was the norm. Article 48 gave the President the powers to impose emergency to suspend civil rights and to rule by decree. The average life span of a cabinet was just 239 days and emergency was declared many times. People were losing confidence in the republic.

Question 2: Discuss why Nazism became popular in Germany by 1930.

Answer: Most of the German were not happy with the way the Weimar Republic meekly surrendered to the clauses of the Versailles Treaty. Heavy burden of war-time reparations led to all around poverty and economic hardships for people. Hitler projected himself as the messiah who could cure all the ills of Germany. He used oratory skills and symbolism to great effect. These were the reasons of growing popularity of Nazism in Germany by 1930.

Question 3: What are the peculiar features of Nazi thinking?

Answer: Nazi thinking was synonymous with Hitler’s thinking. It believed in policy of expansion to bring more resources under its control; to ensure economic development. It believed in stifling the protesting voices. It also believed that the Nordic German Aryans were the only superior race and only they had the right to live in the German empire.

Question 4: Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating a hatred for Jews.

Answer: The Nazi used the media and language with great care and to great effect. They used films, radio, banners, posters and rituals to propagate hatred against the Jews. Moreover, the long tradition of stereotyping the Jews helped the Nazis in increasing a feeling of hatred against the Jews.

Question 5: Explain what role women had in Nazi society. Return to Chapter 1 on the French Revolution. Write a paragraph comparing and contrasting the role of women in the two periods.

Answer: Women did not play an active role in the Nazi society. Hitler believed that a woman’s duty was to bear ‘racially pure’ children and to do her domestic duties. On the other hand, women played good role in the French Revolution. Many women led the suffragate movement to ensure voting rights for women. It can be said that while women played an active role in the French Revolution, they were the passive spectators in the Nazi society.

Question 6: In what ways did the Nazi state seek to establish total control over its people?

Answer: Hitler felt that by teaching the Nazi ideology to children, a strong Nazi society could be established. In order to do so, schools were first ‘cleansed’ by removing Jew and other ‘undesirable’ teachers. Schools were converted into all-German school. Children were brainwashed with the Nazi ideology. There was a system of taking adolescents into the Nazi organization so that they could be mentally trained in Nazi ideologies. The youth had to serve in the youth organization of the Nazi party.

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